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You’ve already recorded three probe readings for Patient D’s maxillary right central incisor on

You’ve already recorded three probe readings for Patient D’s maxillary right central incisor on
1. You’ve already recorded three probe readings for Patient D’s maxillary right central incisor on her chart. How many more readings should be made and recorded for that tooth?

A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1

2. A room where patients regain consciousness after sedation is called a/an _______ room. A. recovery

B. operatory

C. reception

D. consultation

3. Antibiotics are used in post-surgery procedures to control A. infection.

B. bleeding.

C. pain.

D. sutures.

4. The most common type of gingivitis is A. plaque-associated gingivitis.

B. aggressive periodontitis.

C. NUG periodontitis.

D. desquamative gingivitis.

5. Control of pain is most commonly achieved through A. hot packs.

B. oral medications.

C. pressure packs.

D. meditation.

????6. Reamer sizes range from

A. 15 to 150. B. 12 to 25. C. 6 to 150. D. 10 to 25.

7. Postoperative bleeding control is usually accomplished through A. abstaining from food for 10 hours.

B. the use of medication.

C. the use of a pressure pack.

D. sedation.

8. Which of the following items is the most common cause of pulpitis? A. Periodontitis

B. Trauma

C. Caries

D. Cellulitis

9. Patient H’s teeth have a lot of subgingival calculus that should be removed. Dr. Jackson usually prefers to use the ultrasonic scaler for subgingival scaling, but the patient has a poorly shielded cardiac pacemaker. Which of the following instruments would be the most appropriate instrument to use on this particular patient?

A. File

B. Probe

C. Curette

D. Portepolisher

10. The material placed directly on an exposed pulp is A. glass ionomer.

B. zinc oxide eugenol.

C. formocresol.

D. calcium hydroxide.

11. What instrument is used to detect cavities, calculus, and tooth irregularities? A. File

B. Hoe

C. Explorer

D. Probe

12. Of the following, the most common problem patients experience after periodontal surgery is A. gingival graft.

B. lost periodontal dressing.

C. gingival overgrowth.

D. lost sutures.

13. The significant difference between the attached gingiva and the alveolar mucosa is that the alveolar mucosa is

A. tooth-supporting tissue. B. lighter in color.

C. firmer.

D. not keratinized.

14. During a biopsy, what should a dental assistant not do? A. Be at chairside because it will distract the dentist

B. Assist the dentist as instructed

C. Suction the biopsy site when the tissue is being cut

D. Suction away from the biopsy site

15. If the furcation is visible and the Nabers furcation probe can pass through the furcation to the opposite side, the periodontitis has progressed to a _______ furcation involvement.

A. Class III B. Class II C. Class I D. Class IV

16. Angle’s Class II distoclusion refers to the A. lower molar back relative to the upper first molar. B. overjet.

C. mesio-buccal cusp of the second molar.

D. underbite.

17. The removal and recontouring of the alveolar ridge after an extraction is called a/an A. alveolectomy.

B. simple extraction.

C. biopsy.

D. frenectomy.

18. A patient may be referred to an orthodontist if his or her teeth exhibit A. mobility.

B. sensitivity to cold foods and drinks.

C. dental caries.

D. crowding, overbites, and/or crossbites.

19. What are the three classifications of orthodontic treatment? A. Functional, interceptive, and preventive

B. Interceptive, preventive, and corrective

C. Preventive, corrective, and functional

13. The significant difference between the attached gingiva and the alveolar mucosa is that the alveolar mucosa is

A. tooth-supporting tissue. B. lighter in color.

C. firmer.

D. not keratinized.

14. During a biopsy, what should a dental assistant not do? A. Be at chairside because it will distract the dentist

B. Assist the dentist as instructed

C. Suction the biopsy site when the tissue is being cut

D. Suction away from the biopsy site

15. If the furcation is visible and the Nabers furcation probe can pass through the furcation to the opposite side, the periodontitis has progressed to a _______ furcation involvement.

A. Class III B. Class II C. Class I D. Class IV

16. Angle’s Class II distoclusion refers to the A. lower molar back relative to the upper first molar. B. overjet.

C. mesio-buccal cusp of the second molar.

D. underbite.

17. The removal and recontouring of the alveolar ridge after an extraction is called a/an A. alveolectomy.

B. simple extraction.

C. biopsy.

D. frenectomy.

18. A patient may be referred to an orthodontist if his or her teeth exhibit A. mobility.

B. sensitivity to cold foods and drinks.

C. dental caries.

D. crowding, overbites, and/or crossbites.

19. What are the three classifications of orthodontic treatment? A. Functional, interceptive, and preventive

B. Interceptive, preventive, and corrective

C. Preventive, corrective, and functional

D. Corrective, functional, and interceptive

20. The two basic types of sutures are the _______ and _______ sutures.

A. hard; soft

B. resorbable; meltible

C. resorbable; nonresorbable

D. resorbable; dissolvable
29 May 2016, 6:08 PM
Customer
21. Scissors for oral surgery are made with two basic designs: A. tissue and suture.

B. retractor and suture.

C. retractor and tissue.

D. bandage and suture.

22. The metal substructure of a partial denture is called the A. framework.

B. dentition.

C. clasp.

D. abutment.

23. A dental lab can’t complete a requested procedure without which of the following items? A. The dentist’s name, signature, and dental license number

B. The start date of the procedure

C. The dentist’s age

D. The patient’s occupation

24. How do the gums respond when they become dry because of constant mouth breathing? A. By causing the development of an open bite

B. By causing the production of additional saliva

C. By developing a red and inflamed appearance

D. By narrowing and becoming pale

25. The amount of time that self-curing orthodontic adhesive resin is allowed to set is A. 1–2 minute(s).

B. 3–4 minutes.

C. 5–15 minutes.

D. 20–30 minutes.

26. The removal of an area of soft tissue which exhibits suspicious characteristics is known as a/an A. multiple extraction

B. simple extraction

C. intraoral exam

D. biopsy

27. The most common donor site for harvesting a free gingival graft is the A. retromolar area.

B. roof of the mouth.

C. alveolar mucosa.

D. marginal gingiva.

28. Calculating the working length of an endodontic instrument involves several steps. Which of the following steps should be last?

A. Measure the tooth on a good preoperative radiograph.

B. Measure the tooth from the end of the instrument to the end of the root, and then subtract 0.5 mm as a safety factor. C. Insert the instrument to the stop and take another radiograph.

D. Subtract 3.0 mm from the initial tooth measurement and position a stop at this length on the first instrument to be used.

29. Dr. Richard Lee tests Patient K’s maxillary right third molar with a vitalometer. From the results, he diagnoses a necrotic pulp. How did the tooth most likely respond to electrical stimuli?

A. No response

B. Moderate response C. Very low response D. High response

30. What are three of the most common procedures used to prevent decay? A. Sealant, oral-hygiene instructions, and fluoride treatment

B. Fluoride treatment, stainless steel crown, and sealant

C. Oral-hygiene instructions, stainless steel crown, and fluoride treatment

D. Stainless steel crown, sealant, and oral-hygiene instructions

31. A large space between the front teeth is called a midline A. diastema.

B. void.

C. gap.

D. diameter.

32. Dr. Fernandez is about to perform a lateral condensation filling technique. As the dental assistant, which one of the following instruments must you hand her?

A. Condenser B. Spreader C. Plugger

D. Broach

33. After using a suture needle, you should dispose of it by placing it in a

A. sharps container.

B. garbage can. C. plastic bag. D. paper bag.

34. You’re assisting Dr. Sarah Jones during periodontal surgery. She has already made an incision. Which of the following instruments must you now hand her to fold back the flap?

A. Periodontal forceps B. Surgical hoe

C. Periosteal elevator D. Kirkland knife

35. A powerful evacuator used to remove fluids from the oral cavity during surgical procedures is the A. retractor.

B. surgical bur.

C. surgical aspirating unit.

D. rongeur.

36. Luxated teeth refers to which of the following types of teeth? A. Very shiny teeth

B. Teeth that are no longer in their original position

C. Teeth that are knocked out and on the ground

D. Mottled, speckled teeth

37. What are used to lift and separate tissues during an oral surgery procedure? A. Rests

B. Rongeurs

C. Clasps

D. Elevators

38. A tooth knocked out of the mouth is said to be A. broken.

B. luxated.

C. avulsed.

D. fractured.

39. A complete denture is made to sit on the A. lips.

B. damaged cusps.

C. soft tissues and underlying bony structures.

D. remaining teeth.

40. Separators are placed _______ to _______ days prior to fitting and cementation of bands.

A. 1; 2

B. 3; 7 C. 1; 5 D. 5; 10

41. What should you do to keep a pediatric patient calm? A. Look before you leap

B. Accentuate the positive

C. Inform before you perform

D. Wear a white lab coat

42. Tenderness of a tooth can best be determined by A. radiographs.

B. transillumination.

C. fiber optics.

D. percussion.

43. The instrument used for extractions in oral surgery procedures to remove the tooth from the alevolar bone is known as the _______ instrument.

A. clasp

B. elevator

C. aspirating unit D. forceps

44. Which of the following items would not be included on a dental laboratory prescription? A. The type of pontic

B. Infection control instructions

C. The type of prosthesis

D. The dentist’s name

45. Local anesthesia is achieved through A. premedication prior to a procedure.

B. intravenous therapy.

C. mental relaxation.

D. the injection of an anesthetic into the area in which the procedure is performed

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